Registered: May 2009
Is the insane f(div) modified general theory of relativity actually true?
In the book “The Meaning of Relativity” (5th edition, Princeton U. Press, 1956), on pages 83-84, Einstein discusses the problem of finding a differential tensor completely determined by three conditions. At the top of page 84, we find
(3) Its divergence must vanish identically.
Einstein writes that the “first two of these conditions are naturally taken from Poisson’s equation. Since it may be proved mathematically that all such differential tensors can be formed algebraically (i.e. without differentiation) from Riemann’s tensor, our tensor must be of the form”
F(a), where F is some function and a is some constant.
Einstein writes, “Further it may be proved that the third condition requires a to have the value -1/2.”
In Einstein’s field equations, only the constant a and the cosmological constant give a simple form of wiggle room. If a is not equal to -1/2, then we get an insane violation of Einstein’s equivalence principle.
The big question is:
DOES THE INSANITY OF FREDKIN’S FINITE NATURE HYPOTHESIS actually result in the insanity of the constant a not being equal to -1/2?
The so-called f(div) modified theory of general relativity theory is that the constant a is not equal to -1/2 because of insane forces from alternate universes. No physicist in his or her right mind would want a to be anything other than -1/2.
Are Fredkin, Wolfram, and Dave Brown on the wrong track in believing that nature is finite and digital? Future experiments involving ultra-high energy cosmic rays might help to answer the preceding question.
In quantum electrodynamics, virtual particles do not enter into and exit from alternate universes.
In the f(div) theory, virtual photons entering into and exiting from alternate universes in the multiverse should allow modified M-theory to explain dark matter and dark energy.
Last edited by David Brown on 05-13-2010 at 01:32 PM
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